I was looking at Revelation 21:22 -
as per my understanding, the majority of translations are rendering the verse to indicate some version of the Lord God Almighty and the Lamb [are] the Temple.
γὰρ Κύριος ὁ Θεὸς ὁ Παντοκράτωρ ναὸς αὐτῆς ἐστιν, καὶ τὸ Ἀρνίονwe find the verb used to link
The Lord God Almighty
with the temple and the Lamb
is the 3rd person singular verb ἐστιν, which is the word "is"; making its literalness say something like The Lord God Almighty [is] the temple and the lamb.
.
I do understand that translators often prioritize the meaning over strict grammatical adherence;
However given that we have translators that do not deviate from the literal text (DARBY, DRA, JUB, MOUNCE, NTFE , etc... )
What semantic rule(s) are the majority translators using to:
- Change the 3rd person singular verb "IS" into a 3rd person plural verb "ARE"
- Subsequently having to change the order of the subject verb agreement from The Lord God Almighty - Temple - Lamb into Temple - The Lord God Almighty - Lamb.
Additionally are their other areas in the text where we see this synesis being applied to the same extent or more?